Need to know about the benefits of transferring 'translation reserves' to 'opening retained earnings' on first time adoption of IFRS?
For e.g: One of my foreign subsy 'A' was having Translation reserve of USD 100 mn on 31st March'15. On 1st April'15 being the transition date, we transferred all of USD 100 mn to opening retained earnings as per IFRS 1.
Now on disposal of A, are we now supposed to show USD 100 mn as expense and ultimately deduct the same from profit?
if yes, then what was the benefit of making translation reserve 'zero'?